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Bitupon
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 « Embed this message on: December 14, 2005, 03:51:52 pm »

[b:0dc59e1e78][size=18:0dc59e1e78]In the system in the figure,
m2=k(m1) [ i.e. m2 is k times of m1.]
mass of the pulleys and threads, as well as the friction are assumed to be negligible. [/size:0dc59e1e78][/b:0dc59e1e78]

[size=18:0dc59e1e78][color=red:0dc59e1e78]The acceleration of m1 is half of the acceleration of m2.Why is it so? Kindly explain me.[/color:0dc59e1e78][/size:0dc59e1e78]
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majid
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 « Embed this message Reply #1 on: September 25, 2006, 06:22:26 pm »

i do not know ........

i hope some one solve it

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priyanka
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 « Embed this message Reply #2 on: December 09, 2006, 11:43:21 pm »

first of all just assume the acceleration in any direction and simultaneously balance all the forces and solve it
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Life well spent is long. ..."da Vinci (1452-1519, Italian artist, sculptor, painter, architect, engineer and scientist) "

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