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Author Topic: magnetic induction communication system  (Read 10148 times)
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Taona
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1 magnetic induction communication system
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on: May 02, 2009, 10:58:30 pm » posted from:Pretoria,Gauteng,South Africa

I need to simulate a magnetic induction communication system with
two coils radius 10cm, Q factor 40,distance between centres 10cm,
eficiency 96%, frequency of operation is 5khz,
In the second instance the centres need to be misaligned
by 10 cm i need to compare the difference with the first case.
Of interest is how the magnetic field from the first coil induces current in the second coil
under these different situations
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Fu-Kwun Hwang
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Reply #1 on: May 03, 2009, 12:29:12 am » posted from:Taipei,T\'ai-pei,Taiwan

Simulation steps:
1. The voltage can be assumed as Vo*sin(wt).
2. The cureent in the loop can be calculated if the resistance R and the self inductance L of the coil are available.
3. Then, The magnetic field distribution in the second coil can be calculated to get the total magnetic flux.
4. The induced emf can be calculated from rate of change of magnetic flux.
5. The induced current can be calculated from resiatance and self inductance of the coil.
6. The induced current can generate magnetic field in the first coil. so the step 2-5 will repeated continuely (between coil 1 and coil2) until the result can be ignored.

More information are needed:
1.What is the resistance and the inductance of the coil?
Please provide definition of Q factor and efficiency,too!
2. Misaligned in which direction? along axial direction or perpendicular to it?
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Taona
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Reply #2 on: May 03, 2009, 07:36:36 pm » posted from:Pretoria,Gauteng,South Africa

thanks for the response,

please see the attached diagram and information,

thanks


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Taona
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Reply #3 on: May 03, 2009, 07:50:17 pm » posted from:Pretoria,Gauteng,South Africa

please see the alignment diagram attached


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Fu-Kwun Hwang
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Reply #4 on: May 03, 2009, 09:27:36 pm » posted from:Taipei,T\'ai-pei,Taiwan

Information from your files:
Quote
Efficiency n1 = Rs/(RL1 + Rs)  for transmitter side

And     n2 = RL/(RL1 + Rs)  for receiver side

Q1 = woL1/(RL1 + Rs) 

Q2= woL2/(RL2 + RL) 

But in this simulation Q1=Q2=Q

L1 and L2 can be any value:

As efficiency is 96% it implies Rs=RL= 96 ohm
RL1 and RL2 = 4 ohm = inductor coil resistance.

If the size of the coil is defined (in your case), the inductance is fixed,too.
L1=L2 in the above case because they are the same size.
Did you measure the inductance L of the coil?
It will be easier for me if you can provide the value for all the elements: C1, L1, C2, L2 and Vo

I have another question: Why the resistance of the coil is 4ohm if it is a single turn coil. (It is too large for a single turn coil).

May I know why you need this kind of simulation? (What it is for?)



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Taona
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Reply #5 on: May 04, 2009, 12:38:50 am » posted from:Pretoria,Gauteng,South Africa

hie,

i wish to implement a magnetic communication system project
where i intend to use more than one antenna
for improved channel capacity (like what is done in rf communications)
 hence I need to "see" wether it is possible.
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